Death really erases the sins?

One consequence of the fact that the resurrection takes place at the end of the millennium is asking the question of what basis will be judged resurrected .

So far we have been taught that the resurrected would be judged based on what they would do after their resurrection , that is, over a long period in the kingdom of Christ.

The apostle Paul once said ... "I have hope toward God ... that there will be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous" - Acts 24:15

Because Paul harbored the hope that there was a resurrection for the unjust who, if they were only judged by their past actions, would then killed?

Probably these "rolls" will contain many details of the life of people and perhaps will add detailed instructions on how to proceed, evaluating and mitigating the causes, and it is reasonable to believe that there might also be a probationary time for at least some of them.

We have no particular about it, but Jehovah is the Righteous Judge and certainly will make sure that all those worthy have a chance to live and be happy - Compare Matthew 10:15 and Luke 10:13, 14

However, the Bible book of Revelation teaches that the resurrection will occur at the end of the millennium and not during, and so we must acquiesce to the Scriptures.

The writing is said that the rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were not finished - Revelation 20: 5

" As long as" means "up to the moment when" and not "during" and this would appear to suggest that these thousand years, elected would reign on the survivors of Armageddon and their families but not on any resurrected.

The same term, "long" used in Matthew 1:25, we always used to demonstrate, to supporters of virginity of Mary, Joseph had no intercourse with his wife until the birth of the child (and this indicates that after this birth Mary and Joseph consummated marriage as any other married couple).

This should be enough to prove that the resurrection will occurafter the end of the millennium , a concept that seems to be repeated in verses 12 and 13.

If this is correct, how should we understand the words of Paul described in Romans 6: 7 that "he who has died has been acquitted from their sins"?

If the death has been absolved from sin ... why then it was judged on the Day of Judgment, or the resurrection, according to the things written in the scrolls?

This apparent contradiction has led to think that the Day of Judgment would take place in reality throughout the millennial reign of Christ and will be judged on what people would have done during this period .

The duration of the kingdom of Christ would be in harmony with the concept of "day" expressed in the Scriptures - II Peter 3: 8

Is it the death that erases sins or the sacrifice of Christ?

However, analyzing the context of Romans chapter 6 it is not clear at all that the Judgment does not occur on the basis of what has been done when he was alive.

Paul, in fact, speaking of the anointed says he "died with reference to sin" and who were baptized into Christ's death.

He also says that they were "buried with him" by baptism and that baptism constituted, in effect, a "newness of life."

It 'clear that Paul is using figurative language because no Christian, anointed or not, is buried with Christ .

In other words it seems that Paul is saying that only sin no more, that is proving to be dead about life previous sinful and demonstrating faith in the ransom sacrifice of Christ , it is free from judgment.

Verse 8 also says "we have died with Christ" and "we believe that we shall also live with him" but of course Paul was not really dead, or with Christ or to anyone else.

He and several others had died compared to their previous life and now lived a "newness of life".

Having decided to be dead from the previous life he and the others had been "delivered from their sin."

This is in harmony with the words of Jesus when he said that those who would listen to his word and exercised faith in Him would not go to trial - John 5:24

Also, if the death sin was canceled, how should we understand the words of Revelation 6:10?

In this scripture it speaks of the souls of the just who apply to be vindicated, but it is assumed that the perpetrators of these Christians have died long ago.

If the death the sin of the perpetrators has been extinguished ... on what basis can they cry out revenge? And who should retaliate this revenge if there are no more sinners? Even other writings help to shed light on this aspect.

Referring to those cities who would not have heard the message, Jesus said that on the Day of Judgment would be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah than for them - Matthew 10:14, 15; Matthew 11: 20-24

Why it would be more "tolerable" for Sodom and Gomorrah O Tire and Sidon, though the death sin would be canceled and the resurrection would all again from scratch?

In the same principle we can reason about what is said in Revelation 14:13.

The writing refers to Christians and says, "Happy are the dead ... because the things they did go right with them."

If good thingsare retained in Jehovah's memory even after death, it is not reasonable to believe that this happens for the rest?

Matthew 12:36 says, "I tell you that every word unprofitable that men have saidgive account on the Day of Judgment."

If we read only what is written without trying articulated interpretations, you understand that "have said" is the past, of course, referring to what has been said in this lifeand not what they could mean in the future (in fact, Jesus He is condemning the Pharisees who have just asserted that he drive out demons by Beelzebub).

Of this they realized the Day of Judgment.

In Matthew 23: 33-36 Jesus condemns the nation of Israel, especially the scribes and Pharisees for their hypocrisy and violence and says "that is on you all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah son of Barachiah, whom you killing between the sanctuary and the altar. "

How could anyone ask for the blood of Abel and of all those who died later if their murderers were dead and then become sinless?

In 2 Timothy 4:14 the apostle Paul said, "Alexander the coppersmith has brought me much evil - Jehovah will repay him according to his works."

Jehovah would have made according to his works when?

Before his death, that is, in the first century?

Perhaps Jehovah intervened to punish all the persecutors of Christians in the first century?

Is it not clear that the apostle Paul is saying that Jehovah would remember the works of this Alessandro on Judgment Day?

From these writings it is clear that death does not automatically delete the sin but I will only do the Jehovah's Judgment - Compare Revelation 18: 5

As Romans 6:23 says the wages sin pays is death, and so, even if the death repay the debt, they need to remain in death .

This means that their eventual resurrection, however, should answer for their sins because, indeed, have not remained in that condition.

In fact the word "salary" and "pays" fit perfectly into this concept.